MCunningham
Cathlete
So, I have a question.
My sister lives in Virginia, and she has been subletting a room in a single family home from a couple (let's call them "the Smiths") who's been renting said single family home for a few years. My sister has been living there without incident for about 10 months now. In her lease (which was originally a 6-month lease but was never renewed so it is now a month-to-month tenancy), it says that either party (renter or landlords) must give 60-day written notice of intent to vacate.
She has had a good relationship with them, and they have never had any issues.
On May 1, the Smiths gave my sister written notice saying, basically "this is your 60-day written notice that you are to vacate on or before 1 July... because we have purchased a house and we will also be moving, so our sublease to you is being terminated".
So, my sister went out this past weekend and found her own apartment and intends to move to her new place on Saturday, 12 June and turn do her walk-through and turn in her keys to the Smiths' place on Sunday, 13 June.
She notified them in writing today (34 days before her departure date) that she would be leaving the property and turning in her keys on Sunday, 13 June, so she would be pro-rating her rent for the first 13 days in June.
The Smiths wrote her back via email saying that she is responsible for all the rent until the end of June "per the lease", even though she "intends to vacate early".
My question is this-- how can they make her responsible for the last half of June when THEY gave HER notice to vacate on or before 1 July and she is doing just that, and letting them know 34 days beforehand of her intent to do so??? I can see how she'd be responsible for the whole month of June if SHE was the one to initiate the termination of the lease, but in this case, she is simply following orders by finding another place to live before the 1 July deadline.
I cannot find anything online that addresses this issue specifically (anything I find about renter's responsibility for the rent payment assumes that the renter is the one giving notice and not the other way around).
Can someone please let me know who's correct here? I'd hate to see her railroaded into paying for an additional 2 weeks that she really (in my view) shouldn't have to pay, since they are asking HER to leave.
My sister lives in Virginia, and she has been subletting a room in a single family home from a couple (let's call them "the Smiths") who's been renting said single family home for a few years. My sister has been living there without incident for about 10 months now. In her lease (which was originally a 6-month lease but was never renewed so it is now a month-to-month tenancy), it says that either party (renter or landlords) must give 60-day written notice of intent to vacate.
She has had a good relationship with them, and they have never had any issues.
On May 1, the Smiths gave my sister written notice saying, basically "this is your 60-day written notice that you are to vacate on or before 1 July... because we have purchased a house and we will also be moving, so our sublease to you is being terminated".
So, my sister went out this past weekend and found her own apartment and intends to move to her new place on Saturday, 12 June and turn do her walk-through and turn in her keys to the Smiths' place on Sunday, 13 June.
She notified them in writing today (34 days before her departure date) that she would be leaving the property and turning in her keys on Sunday, 13 June, so she would be pro-rating her rent for the first 13 days in June.
The Smiths wrote her back via email saying that she is responsible for all the rent until the end of June "per the lease", even though she "intends to vacate early".
My question is this-- how can they make her responsible for the last half of June when THEY gave HER notice to vacate on or before 1 July and she is doing just that, and letting them know 34 days beforehand of her intent to do so??? I can see how she'd be responsible for the whole month of June if SHE was the one to initiate the termination of the lease, but in this case, she is simply following orders by finding another place to live before the 1 July deadline.
I cannot find anything online that addresses this issue specifically (anything I find about renter's responsibility for the rent payment assumes that the renter is the one giving notice and not the other way around).
Can someone please let me know who's correct here? I'd hate to see her railroaded into paying for an additional 2 weeks that she really (in my view) shouldn't have to pay, since they are asking HER to leave.
